israelflores29oy2ozn israelflores29oy2ozn
  • 19-10-2017
  • History
contestada

Why were wealthy people more apt to have the latest technology in their homes?

Respuesta :

onealantonae
onealantonae onealantonae
  • 19-10-2017
because they have more money and can afford more than an unwealthy person
Answer Link
georgemarquis2
georgemarquis2 georgemarquis2
  • 19-10-2017
Obviously because technology cost money and considering it says why WHERE this must mean it is past tense which leads me too believe there were more poor in the area you are talking about. In a summary the answer is because the wealthy had more money to buy the technology.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

On january 1, 2017, holland corporation paid $9 per share to a group of zeeland corporation shareholders to acquire 60,000 shares of zeeland's outstanding votin
Describe how communication strengthens relationships at work and. As a result, increases your productivity.
what is the sequence steps of finding the median?
what is the y intercept of f(x)=2x^2+8x+6
Find a simplified expression to represent the area of the triangle. The area formula for a triangle is bh, where b is the base and h is the height.
2²ˣ=8 I have a list of work to do and i need help
solve for v 4v+15=67 Simplify your answer as much as possible.
45 POINTS PLZ ANSWER!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Which of the following is TRUE? a. The equivalence point is where the amount of acid equals the amount of base during any acid-base titration. b. At the equiva
Pleaseeeeeee help me!!